Flight and Operational Medical Technician (FOMT) Block 2 Practice Exam

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• The Navy regulation used to conduct physical exams?
• Flying Class IIB restrictions apply to what kind of aircraft?
• Which set of records are listed as the four records found in the PEPP workflow?
• What should you do if a patient refuses medical care in flight?
• Why are antiemetics important for in-flight care?
• Which statement best describes cycloplegic refraction?
• Which section would you consult to determine if a condition is eligible for waiver?
• How would you recognize a stroke using the FAST assessment?
• In a mass casualty, what is the first priority?
• What is the physical exam processing program (PEPP)?
• Who pays for AD Air Force members to be seen at the ACS?
• What are the different categorical waivers for flying class II?
• What is the purpose of monitoring vitals and trends during emergency in-flight care?
• Which ECGs must be sent to the ECG library?
• How should you manage a patient with suspected cervical spine injury during air transport?
• Which system is used to communicate waiver extensions?
• Which symptom is most characteristic of meningitis rather than encephalitis?
• What is the appropriate management for a known asthmatic with an acute attack in flight?
• Why is obtaining rapid IV access important during field assessment for potentially hemorrhagic or obstetric emergencies?
• How should you document patient information after in-flight care?
• Which three signs indicate a patient is in respiratory distress?
• Which document lists the waiver authorities?
• Which event would automatically invalidate the waiver?
• What intervention is first-line for a patient with suspected anaphylaxis?
• Which is the initial treatment priority for suspected heat stroke?
• When selecting analgesics for in-flight use, what must be considered?
• How is manifest refraction performed?
• Who can be seen at the ACS?
• In AIMWTS, which action would you take to move a waiver to another workflow stage?
• Which mechanism provides updates on a condition between expiration dates?
• Which group is associated with ECGs as part of their annual physicals that must be sent to the ECG library?
• What are the key elements of a handoff message during patient transfer?
• How does FOMT Block 2 address ethics and confidentiality?
• What is a head-to-toe secondary assessment sequence?
• How many Flying Class categories exist in total?
• What are the signs of shock?
• Which are the components of the primary survey in trauma management?
• Who is the certification authority for the Air Force, Army, and Navy respectively?
• Which statement about carbon monoxide poisoning management is true?
• Waiver FCIIIC is associated with which restriction?
• What is the purpose of triage and color-coding in a mass casualty?
• USCG personnel require approval from which entity to be seen at the ACS?
• What are the main components of the initial PEM?
• What best describes airway suctioning during flight?
• What is the purpose of an aeromedical waiver?
• What guide would you use to determine requirements for a pilot's annual PHA?
• What is Aeromedical Consultant Services (ACS)?
• Which form is used in HARMS space to document waiver extensions?
• What constitutes an effective handoff to the receiving facility?
• What is contained in Section 2 of the waiver guide?
• The annual PEM is used to verify annual flight/SOD exams and is used how often?
• Which option describes the purpose of AIMWTS regarding waivers?
• Which branch uses NAVMED P-117 for physical exams?
• If a patient reports exposure to a chemical agent at altitude, which action sequence is appropriate?
• What is an interim evaluation?
• What information goes into the demographics section of the medical history portion in the PEPP?
• Which statement best describes the hallmark difference between stable angina and acute myocardial infarction?
• What is the initial approach to suspected internal bleeding when imaging is not available?
• If there is a discrepancy between the waiver guide and DAFMAN 48-123, which guidance do you follow?
• What form do you receive back from the ECG library that determines what the next actions are?
• What is contained in Section 3 of the waiver guide?
• What is the Aerospace medicine waiver guide?
• Which statement about the ECG library workflow is true?
• In flight, which action best supports care for a patient with suspected pneumothorax when cabin pressure is changing?
• In a patient with suspected cervical spine injury, which airway maneuver is preferred?
• Who establishes the term of validity for an aeromedical waiver?
• What is AIMWTS?
• What is a categorical waiver?
• What is the recommended management for a pediatric febrile seizure in flight?
• When a trained asset is disqualified, to whom must notifications be made?
• Which finding is most indicative of shock rather than dehydration alone?
• The Aerospace Medicine Waiver Guide applies to which groups?
• What is the immediate management for a life-threatening hemorrhage in flight?
• How is cycloplegic refraction performed?
• Which regulation is used to conduct Army physical exams?
• What is the purpose of capnography during airway management?
• Where in the medical standards can you find the refractive standards?
• What is the appropriate approach to suspected overdose with unknown substances?
• Which statement best describes the primary difference between meningitis and encephalitis symptoms?
• What is the PEPP workflow?
• Which statement best describes FC III waiver categories?
• When is the initial physical exam matrix used?
• Which rapid methods are used to assess level of consciousness in the field?
• What are some functions of the ACS?
• What is the correct first-line approach to seizures in the field?
• Which section lists readings and references?
• What does ACS stand for in this context?
• Flying Class IIU restrictions require continued duty as what?
• What is the assessment approach for suspected ectopic pregnancy in the field?
• What is the correct approach to moving a patient with suspected spinal injury during air transport?
• What is the recommended approach to oxygen therapy for a patient at risk of pneumothorax during air transport?
• Which option lists the main components of the initial PEM?
• What information goes into the demographics portion of the 2808?
• Which item is used to indicate items requiring correction in the PEPP workflow?
• Where can you find a list of required items needed to submit a waiver?
• What is the role of pulse oximetry in triage?
• Which approach best supports management of a suspected overdose when substance identity is unknown?
• Which item is not typically included in a standard handoff message during patient transfer?
• Which statement best describes AIMWTS?
• Which primary survey component focuses on exposing the patient to assess injuries while preventing hypothermia?
• What actions can be performed in the waiver actions section of AIMWTS?
• Which section addresses aeromedical concerns including chances of approval?
• In the assessment of stroke, which action aligns with the FAST protocol?
• What happens if a medical standard requiring a waiver is rescinded or the condition resolves?
• What are the three main branches of the ACS?
• Where can the refractive standards be found within the medical standards?
• During ACS assessment, when should you provide oxygen?
• Which organization certifies Navy personnel for PEM?
• Which environmental factors are commonly observed in flight and can affect patient care?
• What is contained in Section 1 of the waiver guide?
• Flying Class IIC restrictions specify which duty?
• What is the recommended management for a patient with chest pain when ACS is suspected?
• Which item is typically documented as part of the handoff during patient transfer?
• Who uploads waiver decisions into the electronic health record?
• What does the PEPP workflow allow you to track by time?
• How should you assess airway patency in an unconscious patient in flight when cervical injury is suspected?
• Which combination of findings suggests abdominal obstruction?
• Color-coded triage in a mass casualty should indicate which of the following?
• Which analgesic option is commonly found in in-flight medical kits?
• Foreign military personnel require approval by which department to be seen at the ACS?
• How is auto refraction performed?
• What is a key action to ensure safety during patient handling and movement in flight?
• Which signs differentiate dehydration from hypovolemic shock in presentation?
• What is a contraindication to transporting a patient with active vomiting?
• What is the role of suction in airway management?
• A categorical waiver is defined as a waiver that imposes restrictions for which group?
• Who makes a notification when a trained asset is disqualified?
• Who pays for AFRC/ANG to be seen at the ACS?
• Where can you find a list of the waiver authorities?
• Which general condition addresses subtle performance decrement?
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the ACS?
• How do you determine if a patient is fit to fly after a medical event?
• What does the AIMWTS Workflow allow you to do?
• Which statement best describes typical signs of carbon monoxide poisoning and their management?
• What is the purpose of scene size-up in EMS?
• What is the term of validity for a waiver?
• Which values are used to apply refractive standards?
• How should you position a semi-conscious patient with suspected spinal injury?
• What should you do if a waiver is about to expire and renewal isn't ready?
• Frostbite field management— which statement is correct?
• Which of the following is disallowed as part of the general conditions for waiver eligibility?
• Which of the following describes one of the three general conditions for objective 3a?
• What are the two forms generated by PEPP?
• What is the army regulation used when conducting physical exams?
• What is the ECG Library?
• What is the initial physical exam matrix?
• When is an expiration date placed on a waiver?
• What is the purpose of a medical kit in aeromedical evacuation?
• What are two common signs of hypoglycemia in a patient with diabetes?
• Which statement best describes manifest refraction?
• What are the three dispositions from the ECG library?
• Why is air evacuation risky for patients with suspected pneumothorax?
• How do you assess consciousness level quickly in the field?
• What values are needed to apply refractive standards?
• In the context of refraction, what is the primary role of auto refraction?
• Waiver FCIIID is associated with which restriction?
• Which frostbite action is contraindicated?
• What is contained in Section 4 of the waiver guide?
• Flying Class IIA restrictions apply to which type of aircraft?
• Which item is NOT part of the initial PEM components?
• If a patient asks to delay transport for medical reasons, which action is appropriate?
• During oxygen administration in flight, what is essential for monitoring?
• The ECG Library is housed within which department?
• How are waiver extensions communicated?
• What steps should you take if a patient develops chest pain during takeoff?
• What happens if there is a significant exacerbation of the condition or a change in status?
• How many flying class II categorical waivers for rated officers are there?
• FC IIID is associated with which restriction?
• What is the general rule for oxygen therapy in aircraft?
• What can be found in the demographics section of a waiver?
• Which document provides the primary guidance if there is a discrepancy with the waiver guide?
• What can you view in the waiver section after selecting waiver?
• How many FC III waivers are there for non-rated officers?
• Which statement about heat-related illness prevention during flight is NOT recommended?
• What is the protocol for heat-related illness prevention during flight?
• Which statement best describes a contraindication to transporting a patient with active vomiting?
• Why should you avoid giving dextrose to an unconscious patient unless hypoglycemia is confirmed?
• Which of the following is NOT among the four records found in the PEPP workflow?
• FC III waivers are intended for which group?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five components of the primary survey?